[CS-FSLUG] Logic

[Stephen J. McCracken]

>>> Where would one find the evidence of the superiority
>>> of "semitic logic" over "western logic"?
>> 	The Bible was written by semitic men God chose, maybe?
>>
>> 	-Tim
> 
> So we make Jesus a liar when He said that there is
> no longer Greek nor Hebrew?

First off, where did *Jesus* say this?

If you're talking about Paul, then you are probably mis-quoting one of
Romans 10:12 or Galations 3:28.  Please tell us so we can discuss this
with the appropriate context.

Romans 10:11-13 (NASB)
11 For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes in Him will not be
disappointed.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for
the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call upon
Him; 13 for “Whoever will call upon the name of the Lord will be saved.”

I don't see Paul saying that there are no differences between Jews and
Greeks.  I see him saying that God's grace and salvation is open to all
without distinction of race, privilege, or history.

Galatians 3:26-28 (NASB)
26 For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. 27 For all
of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with
Christ. 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor
free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in
Christ Jesus.

Once again I see him saying that there is no distinction when
considering the salvation given freely to all.  The prior history of the
Law is no advantage (nor is social state or gender).  We all have equal
access through Jesus Christ.

Consider your argument carefully.  If you are implying that these verses
suggest that there are absolutely no differences between Jew and Greek
(e.g. Western thinking vs. Eastern thinking) you need to be ready to say
there is absolutely no difference between male and female and therefore
nothing wrong with homosexuality.

sjm