[CS-FSLUG] A Bible-study question
John Mark Clayton
clayton256 at gmail.com
Fri Aug 31 17:49:32 CDT 2007
I've found this confusing at times. I too would love to hear thoughts on this.
Thanks,
Mark
On 8/31/07, Tim Young <Tim.Young at lightsys.org> wrote:
> Hi there,
> Not sure how many Bible Scholars we have out there. I have a question I
> have been pondering for a while.
>
> In short. Many people in the Bible have their names changed for one
> reason or other.
> Abraham was Abram. For a short period he was called Abram, but for the
> rest of the Bible he is called Abraham.
> Saul becomes Paul, and is from that point referred to as Paul...
>
> The one that intrigues me, however, was Jacob, who became "Israel." The
> reason this intrigues me is that Jacob is still referred to as "Jacob"
> at times after his re-naming. There are times when he is referred to
> Jacob and others when he is referred to as Israel. My suspicion is that
> it has something to do with the promise that "Israel" reflects.
> Sometimes "Israel" refers to the individual, some times to the nation.
> I was just wondering if anyone has any thoughts as to if there is a
> reason one is used over the other? (I have some pretty neat examples
> for when God's many manes are used in the Bible. Which name was used
> when adds a little bit of spice to reading the Bible)
>
> - Tim Young
>
>
>
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--
clayton256 at gmail.com
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