[CS-FSLUG] Logic

[Stephen J. McCracken]

edoc7 wrote:
>> Once again I see him saying that there is no distinction when
>> considering the salvation given freely to all.  The prior history of the
>> Law is no advantage (nor is social state or gender).  We all have equal
>> access through Jesus Christ.
>>
>> Consider your argument carefully.  If you are implying that these verses
>> suggest that there are absolutely no differences between Jew and Greek
>> (e.g. Western thinking vs. Eastern thinking) you need to be ready to say
>> there is absolutely no difference between male and female and therefore
>> nothing wrong with homosexuality.
>>
>> sjm
> 
> Wow, so when I say that there are no significant differences
> between internal combustion engines it requires extrapolation
> to all features of all motor vehicles?
> 
> The result of following your process of reasoning one is thus
> forced to declare that there are no differences between any
> motor vehicles?
> 
> Same irrational assumption of extrapolation followed
> by a stream of logical processes leading to an irrational
> conclusion.
> 
> Your extrapolation escapes the clear limits of context.

My point exactly.

This is exactly what you are doing taking a statement that there "is no
longer Greek nor Hebrew" and using that to say that therefore there is
no "ethnicity-specific logic":

>> Semitic logic?
>> 
>> We now have ethnicity-specific logic?
>> 
>> Given the history of semitic peoples is there
>> evidence that such is known to them?
>> 
>> Thousands of years of unrelenting conflict among
>> tribes and tribal spin-offs suggests otherwise.
>> 
>> My incredulity may be fed from my experience with
>> a 100% Lebanese father-in-law and two 50% Lebanese
>> brothers-in-law.  "Logic" would never be a word that
>> would occur to define the way they generally approach
>> life.

Just because you see "thousands of years of unrelenting conflict among
tribes and tribal spin-offs" doesn't mean they had no logic.  Once
again, your extrapolation falls apart here.  There is no connection
between conflict and lack of logic.  It shows more a difference of
priorities than lack of logic.

Also, your next paragraph really just proves the point you are trying to
disprove.  I would suggest that they do have a logic to the way they
live, but that it is enough different than your logic (Western) that it
is not recognizable to you.

> The true application of those verses is in relationship
> to ethnicity not lifestyle choices.

Side point (no need to comment): Slave/free and male/female are ethnicities?

> Jesus was saying that His Word applied to all equally,
> that there were no special people, that truth trumps
> tradition, and that His Word was available to understanding
> and application by anyone.
> 
> He was clearly stating that one did not have to become a
> Jew to follow Him.  Paul restated this and even had to
> correct Peter at one point for drifting into the errors
> of the Judaizers.

I agree.  So how did you pull out of that  that Western thinking/logic
and Eastern thinking/logic therefore don't have differences? (Without
using the technique that you rail against me using, that is.)

sjm

P.S. My thinking is probably very similar to yours:  that God's word is
open to all and can be understood by all, but I do think we need to be
careful of putting cultural baggage into the message.  Things that might
reach a North American might not reach anyone outside that context.  The
cultural context does make a difference to how the message is heard and
received.