[CS-FSLUG] Still a "cult leader"

[edoc7]

>> Semitic logic?
>>
>> We now have ethnicity-specific logic?
> 
> 	Eastern cultures have a distinctive logic from us westerners (who  
> really are just logical decedents of the Greeks), yes.
> 
>> Where would one find the evidence of the superiority
>> of "semitic logic" over "western logic"?
> 
> 	The Bible was written by semitic men God chose, maybe?
> 
> 	-Tim

So we make Jesus a liar when He said that there is
no longer Greek nor Hebrew?

He was unable to write His Bible so that all could
understand it except for those who adopt a pre-NT
Hebrew legalism devoid of Hellenistic figurative
thought?

In the development of a child the movement from
simplistic legalistic thinking to the more complex
capacity to reason figuratively is viewed as a mark
of maturity.

The NT did not happen in God's perfect timing *until*
the Hebrews had learned from the Hellenistic influences.
Prior to that time the Hebrews were culturally handicapped
in matters of literal vs figurative thinking.

Jesus' teachings about grace vs law would have been
ill-received prior to the transition of ancient Hebrew
thinking as a result of the Hellenistic influence.

Thus we contrast the 10 Commandments with the Sermon
on the Mount.

We see the literalist's resistance to Jesus's teachings
by the Pharisees and Sadducee's who were bound to
ancient Hammurabi's code literalism vs the immediate
understanding of His figurative teaching by the
"gentiles" and those Hebrews who had learned from
the Hellenistic culture.

This is not to say that Hellenistic culture was
superior, Paul had to warn against them taking
license with grace!

doc