Lord's supper (was Re: TD: Benny Hinn (was Re: [CS-FSLUG] RFC: Change of Statement of Faith)

[David Aikema]

On 9/11/05, Fred A. Miller <fmiller at lightlink.com> wrote:
> wine for communion, which is THE CORRECT thing to use, as is unleavened bread
> instead of soda crackers. So, there are none of us who are towing the line

First of, regarding the issue of wine: 
(a) The word-by-word translation in my Greek/KJV/NIV new testament is
suggested to be the "fruit of the vine", rather than explicitly
stating wine
(b) Does ancient wine necessarily correspond exactly to modern wine?
One explanation that I've heard for the prevalence of wine at that
time was do to water contamination.  Thus it could be healthier to
drink wine than water.  Basically, even if it was wine being used, did
it have the same level of alcohol as present-day wines?
(c) How does this fit in with the guidance given in Romans 14:21? 
(btw: my Greek/KJV/NIV lists a single word here to indicate wine
versus several used in (eg.) the description of the first Lord's
supper in Matthew, some (a) doesn't appear to be the case of having
the same word translated multiple ways)

Regarding bread:
(a) I'll agree that unleavened bread was used the first time around,
but is it a requirement that the same apply later on?  (we - or at
least I - don't celebrate all of Jewish feasts of the old testament in
the manner in which they were celebrated in the old testament if the
need for unleaved bread is argued to be due to the Lord's supper being
a continuation of the passover)
(b) If I recall correctly soda crackers are not made using yeast
(baking powder or baking soda instead).  Do all three fall under the
list of items banned for the duration of the passover or merely the
first?

David