Lord's supper (was Re: TD: Benny Hinn (was Re: [CS-FSLUG] RFC: Change of Statement of Faith)

Fred A. Miller fmiller at lightlink.com
Wed Sep 14 09:08:50 CDT 2005


On Tuesday 13 September 2005 9:31 pm, David Aikema wrote:
> On 9/11/05, Fred A. Miller <fmiller at lightlink.com> wrote:
> > wine for communion, which is THE CORRECT thing to use, as is unleavened
> > bread instead of soda crackers. So, there are none of us who are towing
> > the line
>
> First of, regarding the issue of wine:
> (a) The word-by-word translation in my Greek/KJV/NIV new testament is
> suggested to be the "fruit of the vine", rather than explicitly
> stating wine
> (b) Does ancient wine necessarily correspond exactly to modern wine?

'May or may not. SOME have said that what was used was "new wine."

> One explanation that I've heard for the prevalence of wine at that
> time was do to water contamination.  Thus it could be healthier to
> drink wine than water.  Basically, even if it was wine being used, did
> it have the same level of alcohol as present-day wines?

I don't think we know about the alcohol level. It is, by at least tradition, 
(and if I had any available documentation other than that I'd furnish it), in 
Orthodoxy and elsewhere that the wine is mixed with water, from 30% to 50%. 
Even now in Europe, it's common that wine is served mixed or is mixed at the 
table.

> (c) How does this fit in with the guidance given in Romans 14:21?
> (btw: my Greek/KJV/NIV lists a single word here to indicate wine
> versus several used in (eg.) the description of the first Lord's
> supper in Matthew, some (a) doesn't appear to be the case of having
> the same word translated multiple ways)

It was still wine.

> Regarding bread:
> (a) I'll agree that unleavened bread was used the first time around,
> but is it a requirement that the same apply later on?  (we - or at
> least I - don't celebrate all of Jewish feasts of the old testament in
> the manner in which they were celebrated in the old testament if the
> need for unleaved bread is argued to be due to the Lord's supper being
> a continuation of the passover)
> (b) If I recall correctly soda crackers are not made using yeast
> (baking powder or baking soda instead).  Do all three fall under the
> list of items banned for the duration of the passover or merely the
> first?

I can't say. And, is "banned" the correct word? ;) I simply said, unleavened 
bread is THE CORRECT thing to use. Many would consider it not that important 
an issue, and I'd agree that it's probably at least "legal" to use grape 
juice and soda crackers. It is "correct," however, to use wine and unleavened 
bread. By the way, throughout the US, MOST protestants did use wine for 
communion, until Proabition, and then started to use grape juice.

Fred

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